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    Free OMSB Questions and Answers with Explanations

    High-yield OMSB preparation for the Oman Prometric exam — free, no credit card.

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    The OMSB (Oman Medical Specialty Board) exam is the mandatory nursing licensure exam for the Sultanate of Oman. It is delivered by Prometric, uses the standard 100-question multiple-choice format, and expects a solid foundation across Medical-Surgical, Fundamentals, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatric and Mental Health nursing. Free, high-quality preparation resources give candidates a realistic sense of the exam's tone before they commit to a full paid study plan.

    This page gives you a genuine sample of our full OMSB Q&A bank — the same style of question you'll face on exam day, with the same clinical-priority framing that Prometric favours. Every question below reveals the correct answer plus a clear explanation, so you learn the reasoning, not just the letter.

    How to Practise These Free OMSB Questions

    Read each stem carefully, decide your answer before revealing, and pay close attention to the explanation — especially when you got it wrong or guessed. Wrong answers are worth more than right ones during preparation: they show you the exact gap to fix. Once you're comfortable, take the free OMSB mock test to see how you perform under time pressure.

    Free OMSB Practice Questions

    Q1.

    Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

    • A.4,500/mm³
    • B.7,000/mm³
    • C.10,000/mm³
    • D.25,000/mm³
    Q2.

    A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is:

    • A.Yawning
    • B.Body hair
    • C.Hiccupping
    • D.Rapid eye movements
    Q3.

    The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is:

    • A.20G
    • B.22G
    • C.25G
    • D.26G
    Q4.

    Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?

    • A.Prothrombin and coagulation time
    • B.Blood typing and cross-matching
    • C.Bleeding and clotting time
    • D.Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels.
    Q5.

    Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?

    • A.Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item
    • B.Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
    • C.Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field
    • D.Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution into a sterile container
    Q6.

    Sterile technique is used whenever:

    • A.Strict isolation is required
    • B.Terminal disinfection is performed
    • C.Invasive procedures are performed
    • D.Protective isolation is necessary
    Q7.

    A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient's skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:

    • A.Withhold the moderation and notify the physician
    • B.Administer the medication and notify the physician
    • C.Administer the medication with an antihistamine
    • D.Apply corn starch soaks to the rash
    Q8.

    Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:

    • A.IM injection or an IV solution
    • B.IV or an intradermal injection
    • C.Intradermal or subcutaneous injection
    • D.IM or a subcutaneous injection
    Q9.

    The primary purpose of a platelet count is to evaluate the:

    • A.Potential for clot formation
    • B.Potential for bleeding
    • C.Presence of an antigen-antibody response
    • D.Presence of cardiac enzymes
    Q10.

    The physician orders gr 10 of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:

    • A.0.6 mg
    • B.10 mg
    • C.60 mg
    • D.600 mg
    Q11.

    When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that the first thing she touches is the:

    • A.Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
    • B.Waist tie in front of the gown
    • C.Cuffs of the gown
    • D.Inside of the gown
    Q12.

    Which pulse should the nurse palpate during rapid assessment of an unconscious male adult?

    • A.Radial
    • B.Brachial
    • C.Femoral
    • D.Carotid
    Q13.

    Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?

    • A.Administering digoxin (Lanoxicaps) to a patient with heart failure
    • B.Administering a measles, mumps, and rubella immunization to an infant
    • C.Obtaining a Papanicolaou smear to screen for cervical cancer
    • D.Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis
    Q14.

    Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:

    • A.A semiconscious or over fatigued patient
    • B.A disoriented or confused patient
    • C.A patient who cannot care for himself at home
    • D.A patient demonstrating symptoms of drugs or alcohol withdrawal
    Q15.

    The nurse's most important legal responsibility after a patient's death in a hospital is:

    • A.Obtaining a consent of an autopsy
    • B.Notifying the coroner or medical examiner
    • C.Labeling the corpse appropriately
    • D.Ensuring that the attending physician issues the death certification
    Q16.

    Mrs. Lim begins to cry as the nurse discusses hair loss. The best response would be:

    • A.<Don't worry. It's only temporary=
    • B.<Why are you crying? I didn't get to the bad news yet=
    • C.<Your hair is really pretty=
    • D.<I know this will be difficult for you, but your hair will grow back after the completion of chemotheraphy=
    Q17.

    A prescribed amount of oxygen s needed for a patient with COPD to prevent:

    • A.Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
    • B.Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
    • C.Respiratory excitement
    • D.Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus
    Q18.

    Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

    • A.An alert, chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
    • B.An 88-year old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to his bed at home
    • C.An apathetic 63-year old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
    • D.A confused 78-year old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed.
    Q19.

    After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?

    • A.Lethargy
    • B.Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
    • C.Muscle weakness
    • D.Muscle irritability
    Q20.

    Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?

    • A.Side rails are ineffective
    • B.Side rails should not be used
    • C.Side rails are a deterrent that prevent a patient from falling out of bed.
    • D.Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed

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